ENGLISH
• SUMMARY
SUMMARY
• PART 1 Offences Relating to Transportation — Drugs
PART 1 Offences Relating to Transportation — Drugs
• Amendments to the Criminal Code
Amendments to the Criminal Code
• Transitional Provision
Transitional Provision
• Consequential Amendment to the Customs Act
Consequential Amendment to the Customs Act
• PART 2 Offences Relating to Conveyances — Alcohol and Drugs
PART 2 Offences Relating to Conveyances — Alcohol and Drugs
• Amendments to the Criminal Code
Amendments to the Criminal Code
• Transitional Provisions
Transitional Provisions
• Consequential Amendments
Consequential Amendments
• Aeronautics Act
Aeronautics Act
• Criminal Records Act
Criminal Records Act
• National Defence Act
National Defence Act
• Customs Act
Customs Act
• Railway Safety Act
Railway Safety Act
• Corrections and Conditional Release Act
Corrections and Conditional Release Act
• PART 3 Coordinating Amendments and Coming into Force
PART 3 Coordinating Amendments and Coming into Force
• Coordinating Amendments
Coordinating Amendments
• Coming into Force
Coming into Force
• EXPLANATORY NOTES
EXPLANATORY NOTES

SUMMARY

PART 1 

Offences Relating to Transportation — Drugs

R.‍S.‍, c. C-46

Amendments to the Criminal Code

1 Section 253 of the Criminal Code is amended by adding the following after subsection (2):

2 The Act is amended by adding the following after section 253:

R.‍S.‍, c. 27 (1st Supp.‍), s. 36

3 (1) The definitions approved container, approved instrument and approved screening device in subsection 254(1) of the Act are replaced by the following:

(2) Subsection 254(1) of the Act is amended by adding the following in alphabetical order:

2008, c. 6, s. 19(3)

(3) The portion of subsection 254(2) of the Act before paragraph (a) is replaced by the following:

(4) Subsection 254(2) of the Act is amended by striking out “and” at the end of paragraph (a), by adding “and” at the end of paragraph (b) and by adding the following after paragraph (b):

2008, c. 6, s. 19(3)

(5) Subsection 254(3.‍1) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 19(3)

(6) Subsection 254(3.‍3) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 19(3)

(7) The portion of subsection 254(3.‍4) of the Act before paragraph (a) is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 19(3)

(8) Subsection 254(4) of the Act is replaced by the following:

4 The Act is amended by adding the following after section 254:

R.‍S.‍, c. 27 (1st Supp.‍), s. 36

5 (1) The portion of subsection 255(1) of the Act before paragraph (a) is replaced by the following:

(2) Section 255 of the Act is amended by adding the following after subsection (1):

2008, c. 6, s. 21(3)

(3) Subsection 255(2.‍1) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 21(3)

(4) Subsection 255(3.‍1) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 21(4)

(5) The portion of subsection 255(4) of the Act before paragraph (a) is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 23

6 Subsection 257(2) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 24(5)

7 (1) The portion of paragraph 258(1)‍(d) of the Act before subparagraph (i) is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 24(5)

(2) Subparagraph 258(1)‍(d)‍(iii) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 24(5)

(3) The portion of paragraph 258(1)‍(d) of the English version of the Act after subparagraph (v) is repealed.

R.‍S.‍, c. 27 (1st Supp.‍), s. 36

(4) Subparagraphs 258(1)‍(h)‍(ii) and (iii) of the Act are replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 24(9)

(5) Subsection 258(2) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 24(9)

(6) Subsection 258(5) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 25

8 (1) Subsection 258.‍1(1) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 25

(2) The portion of subsection 258.‍1(2) of the Act before paragraph (a) is replaced by the following:

2008, c. 6, s. 26(1)

9 (1) The portion of subsection 259(1) of the Act before paragraph (a) is replaced by the following:

(2) Section 259 of the Act is amended by adding the following after subsection (1):

R.‍S.‍, c. 27 (1st Supp.‍), s. 36

(3) Subsection 259(3) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2006, c. 14, s. 3(3)

(4) Subsection 259(5) of the Act is replaced by the following:

Transitional Provision

Approved instrument, approved screening device, approved container

10 Any approved instrument, approved screening device or approved container approved under subsection 254(1) of the Criminal Code, as it read immediately before the day on which subsection 3(1) of this Act comes into force, is deemed to be approved as an approved instrument, approved screening device or approved container, respectively, under section 254.‍01 of the Criminal Code as enacted by section 4 of this Act.

R.‍S.‍, c. 1 (2nd Supp.‍)

Consequential Amendment to the Customs Act

2008, c. 6, s. 59

11 Subsection 163.‍5(2) of the Customs Act is replaced by the following:

PART 2 

Offences Relating to Conveyances — Alcohol and Drugs

R.‍S.‍, c. C-46

Amendments to the Criminal Code

2006, c. 14, s. 1

12 The definition street racing in section 2 of the Criminal Code is repealed.

R.‍S.‍, c. 27 (1st Supp.‍), s. 33; R.‍S.‍, c. 32 (4th Supp.‍), s. 56

13 The definitions aircraft, operate and vessel in section 214 of the Act are repealed.

14 The heading before section 249 and sections 249 to 261 of the Act are repealed.

15 The Act is amended by adding the following after section 320.‍1:

R.‍S.‍, c. 1 (4th Supp.‍), s. 15(2)

16 Subsection 335(2) of the Act is replaced by the following:

1992, c. 1, s. 58(1) (Sch. 1, s. 7)

17 Subsection 461(3) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2005, c. 25, s. 1(7)

18 (1) Subparagraph (c)‍(iv) of the definition secondary designated offence in section 487.‍04 of the Act is repealed.

(2) Paragraph (c) of the definition secondary designated offence in section 487.‍04 of the Act is amended by adding the following after subparagraph (viii.‍1):

(3) The definition secondary designated offence in section 487.‍04 of the Act is amended by striking out “and” at the end of paragraph (d) and by adding the following after that paragraph:

2007, c. 22, s. 8(5)

(4) Subparagraph (e)‍(ii) of the definition secondary designated offence in section 487.‍04 of the Act is replaced by the following:

1992, c. 1, s. 58(1) (Sch. I, s. 9(1))

19 (1) Subsection 487.‍1(1) of the Act is replaced by the following:

R.‍S.‍, c. 27 (1st Supp.‍), s. 69; 1992, c. 1, s. 58(1) (Sch. I, s. 9(2)), s. 59 (Sch. I, s. 18) (E); 1994, c. 44, s. 37(4)

(2) Subsection 487.‍1(5) of the Act is replaced by the following:

1992, c. 1, s. 58(1) (Sch. I, s. 9(3))

(3) Subsections 487.‍1(7) and (8) of the Act are replaced by the following:

2000, c. 2, s. 3

20 Subsection 662(5) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2013, c. 11, s. 2

21 Paragraph (b) of the definition sentence in section 673 of the Act is replaced by the following:

1994, c. 44, s. 68

22 The portion of subsection 680(1) of the Act before paragraph (a) is replaced by the following:

2011, c. 7, s. 2

23 Subsection 729.‍1(2) of the Act is replaced by the following:

1999, c. 32, s. 6

24 Paragraph 732.‍1(3)‍(g.‍2) of the French version of the Act is replaced by the following:

25 Paragraph (b) of the definition designated offence in section 752 of the Act is amended by adding the following after subparagraph (xxiii.‍3):

2013, c. 11, s. 4

26 Paragraph (b) of the definition sentence in section 785 of the Act is replaced by the following:

2011, c. 7, s. 12

27 Subsection 811.‍1(2) of the Act is replaced by the following:

1999, c. 5, s. 45

28 Part XXVIII of the Act is amended by replacing the references after the form headings in the following forms with “(Sections 320.‍29 and 487)”:

• (a) Form 1;

• (b) Form 5.

2014, c. 25, s. 32

29 (1) Subparagraph (b)‍(iii) of Form 5.‍04 in Part XXVIII of the Act is replaced by the following:

(2) Form 5.‍04 in Part XXVIII of the Act is amended by striking out “or” at the end of subparagraph (b)‍(iv) and by adding the following after that subparagraph:

R.‍S.‍, c. 27 (1st Supp.‍), s. 184(3)

30 Form 5.‍1 in Part XXVIII of the Act is amended by replacing the reference after the heading “FORM 5.‍1” with the following:

R.‍S.‍, c. 27 (1st Supp.‍), s. 184(3)

31 Form 5.‍2 in Part XXVIII of the Act is replaced by the following:

Transitional Provisions

Application for disclosure of further information

32 (1) Section 320.‍34 of the Criminal Code, as enacted by section 15 of this Act, applies in respect of any application for the disclosure of further information that is made on or after the day on which that section 15 comes into force if the sample or samples to which the application relates were taken before that day.

Trial

(2) Subsection 320.‍31(1) of the Criminal Code, as enacted by section 15 of this Act, applies to the trial of an accused that is commenced on or after the day on which that section 15 comes into force if the sample or samples to which the trial relates were taken before that day.

Bodily substances and results obtained before coming into force

33 Section 320.‍36 of the Criminal Code, as enacted by section 15 of this Act, applies to bodily substances obtained under section 254 of that Act, as it read from time to time before the day on which that section 15 comes into force, and to results of any evaluation, physical coordination test or analysis of bodily substances obtained under that section 254, as it read from time to time before that day.

Appeal of order made under section 259

34 (1) An appeal may be taken on or after the day on which section 21 of this Act comes into force against an order made under section 259 of the Criminal Code, as that section read from time to time before that day. Such an appeal is to be taken in accordance with section 675 of that Act, as that section read immediately before that day, and is to be dealt with and disposed of in accordance with the provisions of that Act as they read immediately before that day.

Stay of order made under section 259

(2) Sections 261 and 680 of the Criminal Code, as they read immediately before the day on which section 21 of this Act comes into force, apply in respect of an appeal that is taken on or after that day against an order made under section 259 of that Act, as that section read from time to time before that day.

Approved instrument, approved screening device, approved container

35 Any approved container, approved drug screening equipment, approved instrument or approved screening device approved under subsection 254.‍01 of the Criminal Code, as it read immediately before the day on which section 14 of this Act comes into force, is deemed to be approved as an approved container, approved drug screening equipment, approved instrument or approved screening device, respectively, under section 320.‍39 of the Criminal Code as enacted by section 15 of this Act.

Qualified technician — breath samples

36 Any person who is designated as a qualified technician within the meaning of paragraph (a) of the definition qualified technician under subsection 254(1) of the Criminal Code, as it read immediately before the day on which section 14 of this Act comes into force, is deemed to be designated as a qualified technician under paragraph 320.‍4(a) of the Criminal Code as enacted by section 15 of this Act.

Qualified technician — blood samples

37 Any person who is designated as a qualified technician within the meaning of paragraph (b) of the definition qualified technician under subsection 254(1) of the Criminal Code, as it read immediately before the day on which section 14 of this Act comes into force, is deemed to be designated as a qualified technician under subparagraph 320.‍4(b)‍(i) of the Criminal Code as enacted by section 15 of this Act.

Analyst

38 Any person who is designated as an analyst within the meaning of the definition analyst under subsection 254(1) of the Criminal Code, as it read immediately before the day on which section 14 of this Act comes into force, is deemed to be designated as an analyst under subparagraph 320.‍4(b)‍(ii) of the Criminal Code as enacted by section 15 of this Act.

Consequential Amendments

R.‍S.‍, c. A-2

Aeronautics Act

2008, c. 6, s. 55

39 Section 8.‍6 of the Aeronautics Act is replaced by the following:

R.‍S.‍, c. C-47

Criminal Records Act

1995, c. 39, par. 191(a)

40 The definition sentence in subsection 2(1) of the Criminal Records Act is replaced by the following:

2012, c. 1, s. 112

41 Paragraph 2.‍3(b) of the Act is replaced by the following:

2012, c. 1, s. 126

42 Subparagraph 7.‍2(a)‍(ii) of the Act is replaced by the following:

R.‍S.‍, c. N-5

National Defence Act

R.‍S.‍, c. 27 (1st Supp.‍), s. 187 (Sch. V, item 5)

43 Section 131 of the National Defence Act is replaced by the following:

2005, c. 25, s. 23(2)

44 Paragraph (a) of the definition secondary designated offence in section 196.‍11 of the Act is replaced by the following:

R.‍S.‍, c. 1 (2nd Supp.‍)

Customs Act

45 Subsection 163.‍5(2) of the Customs Act is replaced by the following:

R.‍S.‍, c. 32 (4th Supp.‍)

Railway Safety Act

2008, c. 6, s. 60

46 Subsection 41(7) of the Railway Safety Act is replaced by the following:

1992, c. 20

Corrections and Conditional Release Act

2006, c. 14, s. 8

47 The portion of section 109 of the Corrections and Conditional Release Act before paragraph (a) is replaced by the following:

1995, c. 42, s. 64(3); 2012, c. 1, s. 103(10)

48 Paragraphs 1(s.‍1) to (s.‍2) of Schedule I to the Act are repealed.

49 Section 1 of Schedule I to the Act is amended by adding the following after paragraph (z.‍24):

50 Schedule I to the Act is amended by adding the following after section 1:

PART 3 

Coordinating Amendments and Coming into Force

Coordinating Amendments

Bill C-39

51 (1) Subsections (2) and (3) apply if Bill C-39, introduced in the 1st session of the 42nd Parliament and entitled An Act to amend the Criminal Code (unconstitutional provisions) and to make consequential amendments to other Acts (in this section referred to as the other Act), receives royal assent.

(2) If subsections 7(1) and (3) of this Act come into force before subsections 10(3) and (4) of the other Act, then those subsections 10(3) and (4) are deemed never to have come into force and are repealed.

(3) If subsections 10(3) and (4) of the other Act come into force on the same day as subsections 7(1) and (3) of this Act, then those subsections 10(3) and (4) are deemed to have come into force before those subsections 7(1) and (3).

Coming into Force

180th day after royal assent

52 Sections 12 to 50 of this Act come into force on the 180th day after the day on which this Act receives royal assent.

EXPLANATORY NOTES

approved container means

• (a) in respect of breath samples, a container of a kind that is designed to receive a sample of the breath of a person for analysis and is approved as suitable for the purposes of section 258 by order of the Attorney General of Canada, and

• (b) in respect of blood samples, a container of a kind that is designed to receive a sample of the blood of a person for analysis and is approved as suitable for the purposes of section 258 by order of the Attorney General of Canada; (contenant approuvé)

approved instrument means an instrument of a kind that is designed to receive and make an analysis of a sample of the breath of a person in order to measure the concentration of alcohol in the blood of that person and is approved as suitable for the purposes of section 258 by order of the Attorney General of Canada; (alcootest approuvé)

approved screening device means a device of a kind that is designed to ascertain the presence of alcohol in the blood of a person and that is approved for the purposes of this section by order of the Attorney General of Canada; (appareil de détection approuvé)

(2) If a peace officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that a person has alcohol or a drug in their body and that the person has, within the preceding three hours, operated a motor vehicle or vessel, operated or assisted in the operation of an aircraft or railway equipment or had the care or control of a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment, whether it was in motion or not, the peace officer may, by demand, require the person to comply with paragraph (a), in the case of a drug, or with either or both of paragraphs (a) and (b), in the case of alcohol:

(3.‍1) If a peace officer has reasonable grounds to believe that a person is committing, or at any time within the preceding three hours has committed, an offence under paragraph 253(1)‍(a) as a result of the consumption of a drug or of a combination of alcohol and a drug, the peace officer may, by demand made as soon as practicable, require the person to submit, as soon as practicable, to an evaluation conducted by an evaluating officer to determine whether the person’s ability to operate a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment is impaired by a drug or by a combination of alcohol and a drug, and to accompany the peace officer for that purpose.

(3.‍3) If the evaluating officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that the person has alcohol in their body and if a demand was not made under paragraph (2)‍(b) or subsection (3), the evaluating officer may, by demand made as soon as practicable, require the person to provide, as soon as practicable, a sample of breath that, in the evaluating officer’s opinion, will enable a proper analysis to be made by means of an approved instrument.

(3.‍4) If, on completion of the evaluation, the evaluating officer has reasonable grounds to believe, based on the evaluation, that the person’s ability to operate a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment is impaired by a drug or by a combination of alcohol and a drug, the evaluating officer may, by demand made as soon as practicable, require the person to provide, as soon as practicable,

(4) Samples of blood may be taken from a person under subsection (3) or (3.‍4) only by or under the direction of a qualified medical practitioner who is satisfied that taking the samples would not endanger the person’s life or health.

255 (1) Every one who commits an offence under section 253 or 254 is guilty of an indictable offence or an offence punishable on summary conviction and is liable,

(2.‍1) Everyone who, while committing an offence under paragraph 253(1)‍(b), causes an accident resulting in bodily harm to another person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term of not more than 10 years.

(3.‍1) Everyone who, while committing an offence under paragraph 253(1)‍(b), causes an accident resulting in the death of another person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.

(4) A person who is convicted of an offence committed under section 253 or subsection 254(5) is, for the purposes of this Act, deemed to be convicted for a second or subsequent offence, as the case may be, if they have previously been convicted of

(2) No qualified medical practitioner by whom or under whose direction a sample of blood is taken from a person under subsection 254(3) or (3.‍4) or section 256, and no qualified technician acting under the direction of a qualified medical practitioner, incurs any criminal or civil liability for anything necessarily done with reasonable care and skill when taking the sample.

258 (1) In any proceedings under subsection 255(1) in respect of an offence committed under section 253 or subsection 254(5) or in any proceedings under any of subsections 255(2) to (3.‍2),

• .‍.‍. 

• (d) if a sample of the accused’s blood has been taken under subsection 254(3) or section 256 or with the accused’s consent and if

  • .‍.‍. 

  • (iii) both samples referred to in subparagraph (i) were taken by a qualified medical practitioner or a qualified technician under the direction of a qualified medical practitioner,

  • .‍.‍. 

evidence of the result of the analysis is conclusive proof that the concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood both at the time when the samples were taken and at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed was the concentration determined by the analysis or, if more than one sample was analyzed and the results of the analyses are the same, the concentration determined by the analyses and, if the results of the analyses are different, the lowest of the concentrations determined by the analyses, in the absence of evidence tending to show all of the following three things — that the analysis was performed improperly, that the improper performance resulted in the determination that the concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood exceeded 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood, and that the concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood would not in fact have exceeded 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed;

• .‍.‍. 

• (h) if a sample of the accused’s blood has been taken under subsection 254(3) or (3.‍4) or section 256 or with the accused’s consent,

  • .‍.‍. 

  • (ii) a certificate of a qualified medical practitioner stating that the medical practitioner caused the sample to be taken by a qualified technician under his direction and that before the sample was taken the qualified medical practitioner was of the opinion referred to in clause (i)‍(A), or

  • (iii) a certificate of a qualified technician stating that the technician took the sample and the facts referred to in clauses (i)‍(B) to (D)

is evidence of the facts alleged in the certificate without proof of the signature or official character of the person appearing to have signed the certificate; and

(2) Unless a person is required to give a sample of a bodily substance under paragraph 254(2)‍(b) or subsection 254(3), (3.‍3) or (3.‍4), evidence that they failed or refused to give a sample for analysis for the purposes of this section or that a sample was not taken is not admissible and the failure, refusal or fact that a sample was not taken shall not be the subject of comment by any person in the proceedings.

(5) A sample of an accused’s blood taken under subsection 254(3) or section 256 or with the accused’s consent for the purpose of analysis to determine the concentration, if any, of alcohol in the blood may be tested to determine the concentration, if any, of a drug in the blood.

258.‍1 (1) Subject to subsections 258(4) and (5) and subsection (3), no person shall use a bodily substance taken under paragraph 254(2)‍(b), subsection 254(3), (3.‍3) or (3.‍4) or section 256 or with the consent of the person from whom it was taken after a request by a peace officer or medical samples that are provided by consent and subsequently seized under a warrant, except for the purpose of an analysis that is referred to in that provision or for which the consent is given.

(2) Subject to subsections (3) and (4), no person shall use, disclose or allow the disclosure of the results of physical coordination tests under paragraph 254(2)‍(a), the results of an evaluation under subsection 254(3.‍1), the results of the analysis of a bodily substance taken under paragraph 254(2)‍(b), subsection 254(3), (3.‍3) or (3.‍4) or section 256 or with the consent of the person from whom it was taken after a request by a peace officer, or the results of the analysis of medical samples that are provided by consent and subsequently seized under a warrant, except

259 (1) When an offender is convicted of an offence committed under section 253 or 254 or this section or discharged under section 730 of an offence committed under section 253 and, at the time the offence was committed or, in the case of an offence committed under section 254, within the three hours preceding that time, was operating or had the care or control of a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft or of railway equipment or was assisting in the operation of an aircraft or of railway equipment, the court that sentences the offender shall, in addition to any other punishment that may be imposed for that offence, make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place, or from operating a vessel or an aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be,

(3) No order made under subsection (1) or (2) shall operate to prevent any person from acting as master, mate or engineer of a vessel that is required to carry officers holding certificates as master, mate or engineer.

(5) For the purposes of this section, disqualification means

• (a) a prohibition from operating a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft or any railway equipment ordered pursuant to any of subsections (1), (2) and (3.‍1) to (3.‍4); or

• (b) a disqualification or any other form of legal restriction of the right or privilege to operate a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft imposed

  • (i) in the case of a motor vehicle, under the law of a province, or

  • (ii) in the case of a vessel or an aircraft, under an Act of Parliament,

in respect of a conviction or discharge under section 730 of any offence referred to in any of subsections (1), (2) and (3.‍1) to (3.‍4).

(2) A designated officer who is at a customs office performing the normal duties of an officer or is acting in accordance with section 99.‍1 has the powers and obligations of a peace officer under sections 254 and 256 of the Criminal Code. If, by demand, they require a person to provide samples of blood or breath under subsection 254(3) of that Act, or to submit to an evaluation under subsection 254(3.‍1) of that Act, they may also require the person to accompany a peace officer referred to in paragraph (c) of the definition peace officer in section 2 of that Act, for that purpose.

street racing means operating a motor vehicle in a race with at least one other motor vehicle on a street, road, highway or other public place; (course de rue)

aircraft does not include a machine designed to derive support in the atmosphere primarily from reactions against the earth’s surface of air expelled from the machine; (aéronef)

operate

• (a) means, in respect of a motor vehicle, to drive the vehicle,

• (b) means, in respect of railway equipment, to participate in the direct control of its motion, whether

  • (i) as a member of the crew of the equipment,

  • (ii) as a person who, by remote control, acts in lieu of such crew, or

  • (iii) as other than a member or person described in subparagraphs (i) and (ii), and

• (c) includes, in respect of a vessel or an aircraft, to navigate the vessel or aircraft; (conduire)

vessel includes a machine designed to derive support in the atmosphere primarily from reactions against the earth’s surface of air expelled from the machine.‍ (bateau)

249 (1) Every one commits an offence who operates

• (a) a motor vehicle in a manner that is dangerous to the public, having regard to all the circumstances, including the nature, condition and use of the place at which the motor vehicle is being operated and the amount of traffic that at the time is or might reasonably be expected to be at that place;

• (b) a vessel or any water skis, surf-board, water sled or other towed object on or over any of the internal waters of Canada or the territorial sea of Canada, in a manner that is dangerous to the public, having regard to all the circumstances, including the nature and condition of those waters or sea and the use that at the time is or might reasonably be expected to be made of those waters or sea;

• (c) an aircraft in a manner that is dangerous to the public, having regard to all the circumstances, including the nature and condition of that aircraft or the place or air space in or through which the aircraft is operated; or

• (d) railway equipment in a manner that is dangerous to the public, having regard to all the circumstances, including the nature and condition of the equipment or the place in or through which the equipment is operated.

(2) Every one who commits an offence under subsection (1)

• (a) is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years; or

• (b) is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.

(3) Every one who commits an offence under subsection (1) and thereby causes bodily harm to any other person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years.

(4) Every one who commits an offence under subsection (1) and thereby causes the death of any other person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding fourteen years.

249.‍1 (1) Every one commits an offence who, operating a motor vehicle while being pursued by a peace officer operating a motor vehicle, fails, without reasonable excuse and in order to evade the peace officer, to stop the vehicle as soon as is reasonable in the circumstances.

(2) Every one who commits an offence under subsection (1)

• (a) is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years; or

• (b) is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.

(3) Every one commits an offence who causes bodily harm to or the death of another person by operating a motor vehicle in a manner described in paragraph 249(1)‍(a), if the person operating the motor vehicle was being pursued by a peace officer operating a motor vehicle and failed, without reasonable excuse and in order to evade the police officer, to stop the vehicle as soon as is reasonable in the circumstances.

(4) Every person who commits an offence under subsection (3)

• (a) if bodily harm was caused, is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 14 years; and

• (b) if death was caused, is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.

249.‍2 Everyone who by criminal negligence causes death to another person while street racing is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.

249.‍3 Everyone who by criminal negligence causes bodily harm to another person while street racing is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding fourteen years.

249.‍4 (1) Everyone commits an offence who, while street racing, operates a motor vehicle in a manner described in paragraph 249(1)‍(a).

(2) Everyone who commits an offence under subsection (1)

• (a) is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years; or

• (b) is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.

(3) Everyone who commits an offence under subsection (1) and thereby causes bodily harm to another person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding fourteen years.

(4) Everyone who commits an offence under subsection (1) and thereby causes the death of another person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.

250 (1) Every one who operates a vessel while towing a person on any water skis, surf-board, water sled or other object, when there is not on board such vessel another responsible person keeping watch on the person being towed, is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.

(2) Every one who operates a vessel while towing a person on any water skis, surf-board, water sled or other object during the period from one hour after sunset to sunrise is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.

251 (1) Every one who knowingly

• (a) sends or being the master takes a vessel that is registered or licensed, or for which an identification number has been issued, pursuant to any Act of Parliament and that is unseaworthy

  • (i) on a voyage from a place in Canada to any other place in or out of Canada, or

  • (ii) on a voyage from a place on the inland waters of the United States to a place in Canada,

• (b) sends an aircraft on a flight or operates an aircraft that is not fit and safe for flight, or

• (c) sends for operation or operates railway equipment that is not fit and safe for operation

and thereby endangers the life of any person, is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years.

(2) An accused shall not be convicted of an offence under this section where the accused establishes that,

• (a) in the case of an offence under paragraph (1)‍(a),

  • (i) the accused used all reasonable means to ensure that the vessel was seaworthy, or

  • (ii) to send or take the vessel while it was unseaworthy was, under the circumstances, reasonable and justifiable;

• (b) in the case of an offence under paragraph (1)‍(b),

  • (i) the accused used all reasonable means to ensure that the aircraft was fit and safe for flight, or

  • (ii) to send or operate the aircraft while it was not fit and safe for flight was, under the circumstances, reasonable and justifiable; and

• (c) in the case of an offence under paragraph (1)‍(c),

  • (i) the accused used all reasonable means to ensure that the railway equipment was fit and safe for operation, or

  • (ii) to send the railway equipment for operation or to operate it while it was not fit and safe for operation was, under the circumstances, reasonable and justifiable.

(3) No proceedings shall be instituted under this section in respect of a vessel or aircraft, or in respect of railway equipment sent for operation or operated on a line of railway that is within the legislative authority of Parliament, without the consent in writing of the Attorney General of Canada.

252 (1) Every person commits an offence who has the care, charge or control of a vehicle, vessel or aircraft that is involved in an accident with

• (a) another person,

• (b) a vehicle, vessel or aircraft, or

• (c) in the case of a vehicle, cattle in the charge of another person,

and with intent to escape civil or criminal liability fails to stop the vehicle, vessel or, if possible, the aircraft, give his or her name and address and, where any person has been injured or appears to require assistance, offer assistance.

(1.‍1) Every person who commits an offence under subsection (1) in a case not referred to in subsection (1.‍2) or (1.‍3) is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years or is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.

(1.‍2) Every person who commits an offence under subsection (1) knowing that bodily harm has been caused to another person involved in the accident is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years.

(1.‍3) Every person who commits an offence under subsection (1) is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life if

• (a) the person knows that another person involved in the accident is dead; or

• (b) the person knows that bodily harm has been caused to another person involved in the accident and is reckless as to whether the death of the other person results from that bodily harm, and the death of that other person so results.

(2) In proceedings under subsection (1), evidence that an accused failed to stop his vehicle, vessel or, where possible, his aircraft, as the case may be, offer assistance where any person has been injured or appears to require assistance and give his name and address is, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, proof of an intent to escape civil or criminal liability.

253 (1) Every one commits an offence who operates a motor vehicle or vessel or operates or assists in the operation of an aircraft or of railway equipment or has the care or control of a motor vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment, whether it is in motion or not,

• (a) while the person’s ability to operate the vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment is impaired by alcohol or a drug; or

• (b) having consumed alcohol in such a quantity that the concentration in the person’s blood exceeds eighty milligrams of alcohol in one hundred millilitres of blood.

(2) For greater certainty, the reference to impairment by alcohol or a drug in paragraph (1)‍(a) includes impairment by a combination of alcohol and a drug.

254 (1) In this section and sections 254.‍1 to 258.‍1,

analyst means a person designated by the Attorney General as an analyst for the purposes of section 258; (analyste)

approved container means

• (a) in respect of breath samples, a container of a kind that is designed to receive a sample of the breath of a person for analysis and is approved as suitable for the purposes of section 258 by order of the Attorney General of Canada, and

• (b) in respect of blood samples, a container of a kind that is designed to receive a sample of the blood of a person for analysis and is approved as suitable for the purposes of section 258 by order of the Attorney General of Canada; (contenant approuvé)

approved instrument means an instrument of a kind that is designed to receive and make an analysis of a sample of the breath of a person in order to measure the concentration of alcohol in the blood of that person and is approved as suitable for the purposes of section 258 by order of the Attorney General of Canada; (alcootest approuvé)

approved screening device means a device of a kind that is designed to ascertain the presence of alcohol in the blood of a person and that is approved for the purposes of this section by order of the Attorney General of Canada; (appareil de détection approuvé)

evaluating officer means a peace officer who is qualified under the regulations to conduct evaluations under subsection (3.‍1); (agent évaluateur)

qualified medical practitioner means a person duly qualified by provincial law to practise medicine; (médecin qualifié)

qualified technician means,

• (a) in respect of breath samples, a person designated by the Attorney General as being qualified to operate an approved instrument, and

• (b) in respect of blood samples, any person or person of a class of persons designated by the Attorney General as being qualified to take samples of blood for the purposes of this section and sections 256 and 258. (technicien qualifié)

(2) If a peace officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that a person has alcohol or a drug in their body and that the person has, within the preceding three hours, operated a motor vehicle or vessel, operated or assisted in the operation of an aircraft or railway equipment or had the care or control of a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment, whether it was in motion or not, the peace officer may, by demand, require the person to comply with paragraph (a), in the case of a drug, or with either or both of paragraphs (a) and (b), in the case of alcohol:

• (a) to perform forthwith physical coordination tests prescribed by regulation to enable the peace officer to determine whether a demand may be made under subsection (3) or (3.‍1) and, if necessary, to accompany the peace officer for that purpose; and

• (b) to provide forthwith a sample of breath that, in the peace officer’s opinion, will enable a proper analysis to be made by means of an approved screening device and, if necessary, to accompany the peace officer for that purpose.

(2.‍1) For greater certainty, a peace officer may make a video recording of a performance of the physical coordination tests referred to in paragraph (2)‍(a).

(3) If a peace officer has reasonable grounds to believe that a person is committing, or at any time within the preceding three hours has committed, an offence under section 253 as a result of the consumption of alcohol, the peace officer may, by demand made as soon as practicable, require the person

• (a) to provide, as soon as practicable,

  • (i) samples of breath that, in a qualified technician’s opinion, will enable a proper analysis to be made to determine the concentration, if any, of alcohol in the person’s blood, or

  • (ii) if the peace officer has reasonable grounds to believe that, because of their physical condition, the person may be incapable of providing a sample of breath or it would be impracticable to obtain a sample of breath, samples of blood that, in the opinion of the qualified medical practitioner or qualified technician taking the samples, will enable a proper analysis to be made to determine the concentration, if any, of alcohol in the person’s blood; and

• (b) if necessary, to accompany the peace officer for that purpose.

(3.‍1) If a peace officer has reasonable grounds to believe that a person is committing, or at any time within the preceding three hours has committed, an offence under paragraph 253(1)‍(a) as a result of the consumption of a drug or of a combination of alcohol and a drug, the peace officer may, by demand made as soon as practicable, require the person to submit, as soon as practicable, to an evaluation conducted by an evaluating officer to determine whether the person’s ability to operate a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment is impaired by a drug or by a combination of alcohol and a drug, and to accompany the peace officer for that purpose.

(3.‍2) For greater certainty, a peace officer may make a video recording of an evaluation referred to in subsection (3.‍1).

(3.‍3) If the evaluating officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that the person has alcohol in their body and if a demand was not made under paragraph (2)‍(b) or subsection (3), the evaluating officer may, by demand made as soon as practicable, require the person to provide, as soon as practicable, a sample of breath that, in the evaluating officer’s opinion, will enable a proper analysis to be made by means of an approved instrument.

(3.‍4) If, on completion of the evaluation, the evaluating officer has reasonable grounds to believe, based on the evaluation, that the person’s ability to operate a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment is impaired by a drug or by a combination of alcohol and a drug, the evaluating officer may, by demand made as soon as practicable, require the person to provide, as soon as practicable,

• (a) a sample of either oral fluid or urine that, in the evaluating officer’s opinion, will enable a proper analysis to be made to determine whether the person has a drug in their body; or

• (b) samples of blood that, in the opinion of the qualified medical practitioner or qualified technician taking the samples, will enable a proper analysis to be made to determine whether the person has a drug in their body.

(4) Samples of blood may be taken from a person under subsection (3) or (3.‍4) only by or under the direction of a qualified medical practitioner who is satisfied that taking the samples would not endanger the person’s life or health.

(5) Everyone commits an offence who, without reasonable excuse, fails or refuses to comply with a demand made under this section.

(6) A person who is convicted of an offence under subsection (5) for a failure or refusal to comply with a demand may not be convicted of another offence under that subsection in respect of the same transaction.

254.‍1 (1) The Governor in Council may make regulations

• (a) respecting the qualifications and training of evaluating officers;

• (b) prescribing the physical coordination tests to be conducted under paragraph 254(2)‍(a); and

• (c) prescribing the tests to be conducted and procedures to be followed during an evaluation under subsection 254(3.‍1).

(2) A regulation may incorporate any material by reference either as it exists on a specified date or as amended from time to time.

(3) For greater certainty, material does not become a regulation for the purposes of the Statutory Instruments Act because it is incorporated by reference.

255 (1) Every one who commits an offence under section 253 or 254 is guilty of an indictable offence or an offence punishable on summary conviction and is liable,

• (a) whether the offence is prosecuted by indictment or punishable on summary conviction, to the following minimum punishment, namely,

  • (i) for a first offence, to a fine of not less than $1,000,

  • (ii) for a second offence, to imprisonment for not less than 30 days, and

  • (iii) for each subsequent offence, to imprisonment for not less than 120 days;

• (b) where the offence is prosecuted by indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years; and

• (c) if the offence is punishable on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term of not more than 18 months.

(2) Everyone who commits an offence under paragraph 253(1)‍(a) and causes bodily harm to another person as a result is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term of not more than 10 years.

(2.‍1) Everyone who, while committing an offence under paragraph 253(1)‍(b), causes an accident resulting in bodily harm to another person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term of not more than 10 years.

(2.‍2) Everyone who commits an offence under subsection 254(5) and, at the time of committing the offence, knows or ought to know that their operation of the motor vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment, their assistance in the operation of the aircraft or railway equipment or their care or control of the motor vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment caused an accident resulting in bodily harm to another person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term of not more than 10 years.

(3) Everyone who commits an offence under paragraph 253(1)‍(a) and causes the death of another person as a result is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.

(3.‍1) Everyone who, while committing an offence under paragraph 253(1)‍(b), causes an accident resulting in the death of another person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.

(3.‍2) Everyone who commits an offence under subsection 254(5) and, at the time of committing the offence, knows or ought to know that their operation of the motor vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment, their assistance in the operation of the aircraft or railway equipment or their care or control of the motor vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment caused an accident resulting in the death of another person, or in bodily harm to another person whose death ensues, is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.

(3.‍3) For greater certainty, everyone who is liable to the punishment described in any of subsections (2) to (3.‍2) is also liable to the minimum punishment described in paragraph (1)‍(a).

(4) A person who is convicted of an offence committed under section 253 or subsection 254(5) is, for the purposes of this Act, deemed to be convicted for a second or subsequent offence, as the case may be, if they have previously been convicted of

• (a) an offence committed under either of those provisions;

• (b) an offence under subsection (2) or (3); or

• (c) an offence under section 250, 251, 252, 253, 259 or 260 or subsection 258(4) of this Act as this Act read immediately before the coming into force of this subsection.

(5) Notwithstanding subsection 730(1), a court may, instead of convicting a person of an offence committed under section 253, after hearing medical or other evidence, if it considers that the person is in need of curative treatment in relation to his consumption of alcohol or drugs and that it would not be contrary to the public interest, by order direct that the person be discharged under section 730 on the conditions prescribed in a probation order, including a condition respecting the person’s attendance for curative treatment in relation to that consumption of alcohol or drugs.

255.‍1 Without limiting the generality of section 718.‍2, where a court imposes a sentence for an offence committed under this Act by means of a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft or of railway equipment, evidence that the concentration of alcohol in the blood of the offender at the time when the offence was committed exceeded one hundred and sixty milligrams of alcohol in one hundred millilitres of blood shall be deemed to be aggravating circumstances relating to the offence that the court shall consider under paragraph 718.‍2(a).

256 (1) Subject to subsection (2), if a justice is satisfied, on an information on oath in Form 1 or on an information on oath submitted to the justice under section 487.‍1 by telephone or other means of telecommunication, that there are reasonable grounds to believe that

• (a) a person has, within the preceding four hours, committed, as a result of the consumption of alcohol or a drug, an offence under section 253 and the person was involved in an accident resulting in the death of another person or in bodily harm to himself or herself or to any other person, and

• (b) a qualified medical practitioner is of the opinion that

  • (i) by reason of any physical or mental condition of the person that resulted from the consumption of alcohol or a drug, the accident or any other occurrence related to or resulting from the accident, the person is unable to consent to the taking of samples of his or her blood, and

  • (ii) the taking of samples of blood from the person would not endanger the life or health of the person,

the justice may issue a warrant authorizing a peace officer to require a qualified medical practitioner to take, or to cause to be taken by a qualified technician under the direction of the qualified medical practitioner, the samples of the blood of the person that in the opinion of the person taking the samples are necessary to enable a proper analysis to be made in order to determine the concentration, if any, of alcohol or drugs in the person’s blood.

(2) A warrant issued pursuant to subsection (1) may be in Form 5 or 5.‍1 varied to suit the case.

(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs 487.‍1(4)‍(b) and (c), an information on oath submitted by telephone or other means of telecommunication for the purposes of this section shall include, instead of the statements referred to in those paragraphs, a statement setting out the offence alleged to have been committed and identifying the person from whom blood samples are to be taken.

(4) Samples of blood may be taken from a person pursuant to a warrant issued pursuant to subsection (1) only during such time as a qualified medical practitioner is satisfied that the conditions referred to in subparagraphs (1)‍(b)‍(i) and (ii) continue to exist in respect of that person.

(5) When a warrant issued under subsection (1) is executed, the peace officer shall, as soon as practicable, give a copy of it — or, in the case of a warrant issued by telephone or other means of telecommunication, a facsimile — to the person from whom the blood samples are taken.

257 (1) No qualified medical practitioner or qualified technician is guilty of an offence only by reason of his refusal to take a sample of blood from a person for the purposes of section 254 or 256 and no qualified medical practitioner is guilty of an offence only by reason of his refusal to cause to be taken by a qualified technician under his direction a sample of blood from a person for those purposes.

(2) No qualified medical practitioner by whom or under whose direction a sample of blood is taken from a person under subsection 254(3) or (3.‍4) or section 256, and no qualified technician acting under the direction of a qualified medical practitioner, incurs any criminal or civil liability for anything necessarily done with reasonable care and skill when taking the sample.

258 (1) In any proceedings under subsection 255(1) in respect of an offence committed under section 253 or subsection 254(5) or in any proceedings under any of subsections 255(2) to (3.‍2),

• (a) where it is proved that the accused occupied the seat or position ordinarily occupied by a person who operates a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft or any railway equipment or who assists in the operation of an aircraft or of railway equipment, the accused shall be deemed to have had the care or control of the vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be, unless the accused establishes that the accused did not occupy that seat or position for the purpose of setting the vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment in motion or assisting in the operation of the aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be;

• (b) the result of an analysis of a sample of the accused’s breath, blood, urine or other bodily substance — other than a sample taken under subsection 254(3), (3.‍3) or (3.‍4) — may be admitted in evidence even if the accused was not warned before they gave the sample that they need not give the sample or that the result of the analysis of the sample might be used in evidence;

• (c) where samples of the breath of the accused have been taken pursuant to a demand made under subsection 254(3), if

  • (i) [Repealed before coming into force, 2008, c. 20, s. 3]

  • (ii) each sample was taken as soon as practicable after the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed and, in the case of the first sample, not later than two hours after that time, with an interval of at least fifteen minutes between the times when the samples were taken,

  • (iii) each sample was received from the accused directly into an approved container or into an approved instrument operated by a qualified technician, and

  • (iv) an analysis of each sample was made by means of an approved instrument operated by a qualified technician,

evidence of the results of the analyses so made is conclusive proof that the concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood both at the time when the analyses were made and at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed was, if the results of the analyses are the same, the concentration determined by the analyses and, if the results of the analyses are different, the lowest of the concentrations determined by the analyses, in the absence of evidence tending to show all of the following three things — that the approved instrument was malfunctioning or was operated improperly, that the malfunction or improper operation resulted in the determination that the concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood exceeded 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood, and that the concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood would not in fact have exceeded 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed;

• (d) if a sample of the accused’s blood has been taken under subsection 254(3) or section 256 or with the accused’s consent and if

  • (i) at the time the sample was taken, the person taking the sample took an additional sample of the blood of the accused and one of the samples was retained to permit an analysis of it to be made by or on behalf of the accused and, in the case where the accused makes a request within six months from the taking of the samples, one of the samples was ordered to be released under subsection (4),

  • (ii) both samples referred to in subparagraph (i) were taken as soon as practicable and in any event not later than two hours after the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed,

  • (iii) both samples referred to in subparagraph (i) were taken by a qualified medical practitioner or a qualified technician under the direction of a qualified medical practitioner,

  • (iv) both samples referred to in subparagraph (i) were received from the accused directly into, or placed directly into, approved containers that were subsequently sealed, and

  • (v) an analysis was made by an analyst of at least one of the samples,

evidence of the result of the analysis is conclusive proof that the concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood both at the time when the samples were taken and at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed was the concentration determined by the analysis or, if more than one sample was analyzed and the results of the analyses are the same, the concentration determined by the analyses and, if the results of the analyses are different, the lowest of the concentrations determined by the analyses, in the absence of evidence tending to show all of the following three things — that the analysis was performed improperly, that the improper performance resulted in the determination that the concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood exceeded 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood, and that the concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood would not in fact have exceeded 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed;

• (d.‍01) for greater certainty, evidence tending to show that an approved instrument was malfunctioning or was operated improperly, or that an analysis of a sample of the accused’s blood was performed improperly, does not include evidence of

  • (i) the amount of alcohol that the accused consumed,

  • (ii) the rate at which the alcohol that the accused consumed would have been absorbed and eliminated by the accused’s body, or

  • (iii) a calculation based on that evidence of what the concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood would have been at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed;

• (d.‍1) if samples of the accused’s breath or a sample of the accused’s blood have been taken as described in paragraph (c) or (d) under the conditions described in that paragraph and the results of the analyses show a concentration of alcohol in blood exceeding 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood, evidence of the results of the analyses is proof that the concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed exceeded 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood, in the absence of evidence tending to show that the accused’s consumption of alcohol was consistent with both

  • (i) a concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood that did not exceed 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed, and

  • (ii) the concentration of alcohol in the accused’s blood as determined under paragraph (c) or (d), as the case may be, at the time when the sample or samples were taken;

• (e) a certificate of an analyst stating that the analyst has made an analysis of a sample of the blood, urine, breath or other bodily substance of the accused and stating the result of that analysis is evidence of the facts alleged in the certificate without proof of the signature or the official character of the person appearing to have signed the certificate;

• (f) a certificate of an analyst stating that the analyst has made an analysis of a sample of an alcohol standard that is identified in the certificate and intended for use with an approved instrument and that the sample of the standard analyzed by the analyst was found to be suitable for use with an approved instrument, is evidence that the alcohol standard so identified is suitable for use with an approved instrument without proof of the signature or the official character of the person appearing to have signed the certificate;

• (f.‍1) the document printed out from an approved instrument and signed by a qualified technician who certifies it to be the printout produced by the approved instrument when it made the analysis of a sample of the accused’s breath is evidence of the facts alleged in the document without proof of the signature or official character of the person appearing to have signed it;

• (g) where samples of the breath of the accused have been taken pursuant to a demand made under subsection 254(3), a certificate of a qualified technician stating

  • (i) that the analysis of each of the samples has been made by means of an approved instrument operated by the technician and ascertained by the technician to be in proper working order by means of an alcohol standard, identified in the certificate, that is suitable for use with an approved instrument,

  • (ii) the results of the analyses so made, and

  • (iii) if the samples were taken by the technician,

    • (A) [Repealed before coming into force, 2008, c. 20, s. 3]

    • (B) the time when and place where each sample and any specimen described in clause (A) was taken, and

    • (C) that each sample was received from the accused directly into an approved container or into an approved instrument operated by the technician,

is evidence of the facts alleged in the certificate without proof of the signature or the official character of the person appearing to have signed the certificate;

• (h) if a sample of the accused’s blood has been taken under subsection 254(3) or (3.‍4) or section 256 or with the accused’s consent,

  • (i) a certificate of a qualified medical practitioner stating that

    • (A) they took the sample and before the sample was taken they were of the opinion that taking it would not endanger the accused’s life or health and, in the case of a demand made under section 256, that by reason of any physical or mental condition of the accused that resulted from the consumption of alcohol or a drug, the accident or any other occurrence related to or resulting from the accident, the accused was unable to consent to the taking of the sample,

    • (B) at the time the sample was taken, an additional sample of the blood of the accused was taken to permit analysis of one of the samples to be made by or on behalf of the accused,

    • (C) the time when and place where both samples referred to in clause (B) were taken, and

    • (D) both samples referred to in clause (B) were received from the accused directly into, or placed directly into, approved containers that were subsequently sealed and that are identified in the certificate,

  • (ii) a certificate of a qualified medical practitioner stating that the medical practitioner caused the sample to be taken by a qualified technician under his direction and that before the sample was taken the qualified medical practitioner was of the opinion referred to in clause (i)‍(A), or

  • (iii) a certificate of a qualified technician stating that the technician took the sample and the facts referred to in clauses (i)‍(B) to (D)

is evidence of the facts alleged in the certificate without proof of the signature or official character of the person appearing to have signed the certificate; and

• (i) a certificate of an analyst stating that the analyst has made an analysis of a sample of the blood of the accused that was contained in a sealed approved container identified in the certificate, the date on which and place where the sample was analyzed and the result of that analysis is evidence of the facts alleged in the certificate without proof of the signature or official character of the person appearing to have signed it.

(2) Unless a person is required to give a sample of a bodily substance under paragraph 254(2)‍(b) or subsection 254(3), (3.‍3) or (3.‍4), evidence that they failed or refused to give a sample for analysis for the purposes of this section or that a sample was not taken is not admissible and the failure, refusal or fact that a sample was not taken shall not be the subject of comment by any person in the proceedings.

(3) In any proceedings under subsection 255(1) in respect of an offence committed under paragraph 253(1)‍(a) or in any proceedings under subsection 255(2) or (3), evidence that the accused, without reasonable excuse, failed or refused to comply with a demand made under section 254 is admissible and the court may draw an inference adverse to the accused from that evidence.

(4) If, at the time a sample of an accused’s blood is taken, an additional sample is taken and retained, a judge of a superior court of criminal jurisdiction or a court of criminal jurisdiction shall, on the summary application of the accused made within six months after the day on which the samples were taken, order the release of one of the samples for the purpose of examination or analysis, subject to any terms that appear to be necessary or desirable to ensure that the sample is safeguarded and preserved for use in any proceedings in respect of which it was taken.

(5) A sample of an accused’s blood taken under subsection 254(3) or section 256 or with the accused’s consent for the purpose of analysis to determine the concentration, if any, of alcohol in the blood may be tested to determine the concentration, if any, of a drug in the blood.

(6) A party against whom a certificate described in paragraph (1)‍(e), (f), (f.‍1), (g), (h) or (i) is produced may, with leave of the court, require the attendance of the qualified medical practitioner, analyst or qualified technician, as the case may be, for the purposes of cross-examination.

(7) No certificate shall be received in evidence pursuant to paragraph (1)‍(e), (f), (g), (h) or (i) unless the party intending to produce it has, before the trial, given to the other party reasonable notice of his intention and a copy of the certificate.

258.‍1 (1) Subject to subsections 258(4) and (5) and subsection (3), no person shall use a bodily substance taken under paragraph 254(2)‍(b), subsection 254(3), (3.‍3) or (3.‍4) or section 256 or with the consent of the person from whom it was taken after a request by a peace officer or medical samples that are provided by consent and subsequently seized under a warrant, except for the purpose of an analysis that is referred to in that provision or for which the consent is given.

(2) Subject to subsections (3) and (4), no person shall use, disclose or allow the disclosure of the results of physical coordination tests under paragraph 254(2)‍(a), the results of an evaluation under subsection 254(3.‍1), the results of the analysis of a bodily substance taken under paragraph 254(2)‍(b), subsection 254(3), (3.‍3) or (3.‍4) or section 256 or with the consent of the person from whom it was taken after a request by a peace officer, or the results of the analysis of medical samples that are provided by consent and subsequently seized under a warrant, except

• (a) in the course of an investigation of, or in a proceeding for, an offence under any of sections 220, 221, 236 and 249 to 255, an offence under Part I of the Aeronautics Act, or an offence under the Railway Safety Act in respect of a contravention of a rule or regulation made under that Act respecting the use of alcohol or a drug; or

• (b) for the purpose of the administration or enforcement of the law of a province.

(3) Subsections (1) and (2) do not apply to persons who for medical purposes use samples or use or disclose the results of tests, taken for medical purposes, that are subsequently seized under a warrant.

(4) The results of physical coordination tests, an evaluation or an analysis referred to in subsection (2) may be disclosed to the person to whom they relate, and may be disclosed to any other person if the results are made anonymous and the disclosure is made for statistical or other research purposes.

(5) Every person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.

259 (1) When an offender is convicted of an offence committed under section 253 or 254 or this section or discharged under section 730 of an offence committed under section 253 and, at the time the offence was committed or, in the case of an offence committed under section 254, within the three hours preceding that time, was operating or had the care or control of a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft or of railway equipment or was assisting in the operation of an aircraft or of railway equipment, the court that sentences the offender shall, in addition to any other punishment that may be imposed for that offence, make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place, or from operating a vessel or an aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be,

• (a) for a first offence, during a period of not more than three years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, and not less than one year;

• (b) for a second offence, during a period of not more than five years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, and not less than two years; and

• (c) for each subsequent offence, during a period of not less than three years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment.

(1.‍1) If the offender is registered in an alcohol ignition interlock device program established under the law of the province in which the offender resides and complies with the conditions of the program, the offender may, subject to subsection (1.‍2), operate a motor vehicle equipped with an alcohol ignition interlock device during the prohibition period, unless the court orders otherwise.

(1.‍2) An offender who is registered in a program referred to in subsection (1.‍1) may not operate a motor vehicle equipped with an alcohol ignition interlock device until

• (a) the expiry of a period of

  • (i) for a first offence, 3 months after the day on which sentence is imposed,

  • (ii) for a second offence, 6 months after the day on which sentence is imposed, and

  • (iii) for each subsequent offence, 12 months after the day on which sentence is imposed; or

• (b) the expiry of any period that may be fixed by order of the court that is greater than a period referred to in paragraph (a).

(1.‍3) and (1.‍4) [Repealed, 2008, c. 18, s. 8]

(2) If an offender is convicted or discharged under section 730 of an offence under section 220, 221, 236, 249, 249.‍1, 250, 251 or 252 or any of subsections 255(2) to (3.‍2) committed by means of a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment, the court that sentences the offender may, in addition to any other punishment that may be imposed for that offence, make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place, or from operating a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be,

• (a) during any period that the court considers proper, if the offender is sentenced to imprisonment for life in respect of that offence;

• (a.‍1) during any period that the court considers proper, plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, if the offender is liable to imprisonment for life in respect of that offence and if the sentence imposed is other than imprisonment for life;

• (b) during any period not exceeding ten years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, if the offender is liable to imprisonment for more than five years but less than life in respect of that offence; and

• (c) during any period not exceeding three years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, in any other case.

(2.‍1) The court may, when it makes an order under this section prohibiting the operation of a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be, order that the time served under that order be served consecutively to the time served under any other order made under this section that prohibits the operation of the same means of transport and that is in force.

(3) No order made under subsection (1) or (2) shall operate to prevent any person from acting as master, mate or engineer of a vessel that is required to carry officers holding certificates as master, mate or engineer.

(3.‍1) When an offender is convicted or discharged under section 730 of an offence committed under subsection 249.‍4(1), the court that sentences the offender shall, in addition to any other punishment that may be imposed for that offence, make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place

• (a) for a first offence, during a period of not more than three years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, and not less than one year;

• (b) for a second offence, during a period of not more than five years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, and not less than two years; and

• (c) for each subsequent offence, during a period of not less than three years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment.

(3.‍2) When an offender is convicted or discharged under section 730 of an offence committed under section 249.‍3 or subsection 249.‍4(3), the court that sentences the offender shall, in addition to any other punishment that may be imposed for that offence, make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place

• (a) for a first offence, during a period of not more than ten years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, and not less than one year;

• (b) for a second offence, during a period of not more than ten years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, and not less than two years; and

• (c) for each subsequent offence, during a period of not less than three years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment.

(3.‍3) When an offender is convicted or discharged under section 730 of a first offence committed under section 249.‍2 or subsection 249.‍4(4), the court that sentences the offender shall, in addition to any other punishment that may be imposed for that offence, make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place

• (a) for an offence under section 249.‍2, during a period of not less than one year plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment; and

• (b) for an offence under subsection 249.‍4(4), during a period of not more than ten years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, and not less than one year.

(3.‍4) When an offender is convicted or discharged under section 730 of an offence committed under section 249.‍2 or 249.‍3 or subsection 249.‍4(3) or (4), the offender has previously been convicted or discharged under section 730 of one of those offences and at least one of the convictions or discharges is under section 249.‍2 or subsection 249.‍4(4), the court that sentences the offender shall make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place for life.

(4) Every offender who operates a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft or any railway equipment in Canada while disqualified from doing so, other than an offender who is registered in an alcohol ignition interlock device program established under the law of the province in which the offender resides and who complies with the conditions of the program,

• (a) is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years; or

• (b) is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.

(5) For the purposes of this section, disqualification means

• (a) a prohibition from operating a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft or any railway equipment ordered pursuant to any of subsections (1), (2) and (3.‍1) to (3.‍4); or

• (b) a disqualification or any other form of legal restriction of the right or privilege to operate a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft imposed

  • (i) in the case of a motor vehicle, under the law of a province, or

  • (ii) in the case of a vessel or an aircraft, under an Act of Parliament,

in respect of a conviction or discharge under section 730 of any offence referred to in any of subsections (1), (2) and (3.‍1) to (3.‍4).

260 (1) If a court makes a prohibition order under section 259 in relation to an offender, it shall cause

• (a) the order to be read by or to the offender;

• (b) a copy of the order to be given to the offender; and

• (c) the offender to be informed of subsection 259(4).

(2) After subsection (1) has been complied with in relation to an offender who is bound by an order referred to in that subsection, the offender shall endorse the order, acknowledging receipt of a copy thereof and that the order has been explained to him.

(3) The failure of an offender to endorse an order pursuant to subsection (2) does not affect the validity of the order.

(4) In the absence of evidence to the contrary, where it is proved that a disqualification referred to in paragraph 259(5)‍(b) has been imposed on a person and that notice of the disqualification has been mailed by registered or certified mail to that person, that person shall, after five days following the mailing of the notice, be deemed to have received the notice and to have knowledge of the disqualification, of the date of its commencement and of its duration.

(5) In proceedings under section 259, a certificate setting out with reasonable particularity that a person is disqualified from

• (a) driving a motor vehicle in a province, purporting to be signed by the registrar of motor vehicles for that province, or

• (b) operating a vessel or aircraft, purporting to be signed by the Minister of Transport or any person authorized by the Minister of Transport for that purpose

is evidence of the facts alleged therein without proof of the signature or official character of the person by whom it purports to be signed.

(6) Subsection (5) does not apply in any proceedings unless at least seven days notice in writing is given to the accused that it is intended to tender the certificate in evidence.

(7) In subsection (5), registrar of motor vehicles includes the deputy of that registrar and any other person or body, by whatever name or title designated, that from time to time performs the duties of superintending the registration of motor vehicles in the province.

261 (1) Subject to subsection (1.‍1), if an appeal is taken against a conviction or discharge under section 730 for an offence committed under any of sections 220, 221, 236, 249 to 255 and 259, a judge of the court being appealed to may direct that any prohibition order under section 259 arising out of the conviction or discharge shall, on any conditions that the judge or court imposes, be stayed pending the final disposition of the appeal or until otherwise ordered by that court.

(1.‍1) In the case of an appeal to the Supreme Court of Canada, the direction referred to in subsection (1) may be made only by a judge of the court being appealed from and not by a judge of the Supreme Court of Canada.

(2) If conditions are imposed under a direction made under subsection (1) or (1.‍1) that a prohibition order be stayed, the direction shall not operate to decrease the period of prohibition provided in the order.

(2) For the purposes of subsection (1), vessel has the meaning assigned by section 214.

(3) Subsections 258(6) and (7) apply, with such modifications as the circumstances require, in respect of a certificate described in subsection (2).

secondary designated offence means an offence, other than a primary designated offence, that is

• .‍.‍. 

• (c) an offence under any of the following provisions of this Act:

  • .‍.‍. 

  • (iv) section 252 (failure to stop at scene of accident),

• .‍.‍. 

• (e) an attempt to commit or, other than for the purposes of subsection 487.‍05(1), a conspiracy to commit

  • .‍.‍. 

  • (ii) an offence referred to in paragraph (c) or (d); (infraction secondaire)

487.‍1 (1) Where a peace officer believes that an indictable offence has been committed and that it would be impracticable to appear personally before a justice to make application for a warrant in accordance with section 256 or 487, the peace officer may submit an information on oath by telephone or other means of telecommunication to a justice designated for the purpose by the chief judge of the provincial court having jurisdiction in the matter.

(5) A justice referred to in subsection (1) who is satisfied that an information submitted by telephone or other means of telecommunication

• (a) is in respect of an indictable offence and conforms to the requirements of subsection (4),

• (b) discloses reasonable grounds for dispensing with an information presented personally and in writing, and

• (c) discloses reasonable grounds, in accordance with subsection 256(1) or paragraph 487(1)‍(a), (b) or (c), as the case may be, for the issuance of a warrant in respect of an indictable offence,

may issue a warrant to a peace officer conferring the same authority respecting search and seizure as may be conferred by a warrant issued by a justice before whom the peace officer appears personally pursuant to subsection 256(1) or 487(1), as the case may be, and may require that the warrant be executed within such time period as the justice may order.

(7) A peace officer who executes a warrant issued by telephone or other means of telecommunication, other than a warrant issued pursuant to subsection 256(1), shall, before entering the place or premises to be searched or as soon as practicable thereafter, give a facsimile of the warrant to any person present and ostensibly in control of the place or premises.

(8) A peace officer who, in any unoccupied place or premises, executes a warrant issued by telephone or other means of telecommunication, other than a warrant issued pursuant to subsection 256(1), shall, on entering the place or premises or as soon as practicable thereafter, cause a facsimile of the warrant to be suitably affixed in a prominent place within the place or premises.

(5) For greater certainty, where a count charges an offence under section 220, 221 or 236 arising out of the operation of a motor vehicle or the navigation or operation of a vessel or aircraft, and the evidence does not prove such offence but does prove an offence under section 249 or subsection 249.‍1(3), the accused may be convicted of an offence under section 249 or subsection 249.‍1(3), as the case may be.

sentence includes

• .‍.‍. 

• (b) an order made under subsection 109(1) or 110(1), section 161, subsection 164.‍2(1) or 194(1), section 259, 261 or 462.‍37, subsection 491.‍1(2), 730(1) or 737(3) or section 738, 739, 742.‍1, 742.‍3, 743.‍6, 745.‍4 or 745.‍5,

680 (1) A decision made by a judge under section 522 or subsection 524(4) or (5) or a decision made by a judge of the court of appeal under section 261 or 679 may, on the direction of the chief justice or acting chief justice of the court of appeal, be reviewed by that court and that court may, if it does not confirm the decision,

(2) In this section, analyst has the same meaning as in subsection 254(1).

(3) The court may prescribe, as additional conditions of a probation order, that the offender do one or more of the following:

• .‍.‍. 

• (g.‍2) where the lieutenant governor in council of the province in which the probation order is made has established a program governing the use of an alcohol ignition interlock device by an offender and if the offender agrees to participate in the program, comply with the program; and

sentence includes

• .‍.‍. 

• (b) an order made under subsection 109(1) or 110(1), section 259 or 261, subsection 730(1) or 737(3) or section 738, 739, 742.‍1 or 742.‍3,

(2) In this section, analyst has the same meaning as in subsection 254(1).

8.‍6 Evidence relating to the presence or concentration of alcohol or a drug in a sample of a bodily substance obtained under any provision of the Criminal Code is admissible in proceedings taken against a person under this Part, and the provisions of section 258 of the Criminal Code, except paragraph 258(1)‍(a), apply to those proceedings with any modifications that the circumstances require.

sentence has the same meaning as in the Criminal Code, but does not include an order made under section 109, 110, 161 or 259 of that Act or subsection 147.‍1(1) of the National Defence Act.‍ (peine)

2.‍3 A record suspension

• .‍.‍. 

• (b) unless the record suspension is subsequently revoked or ceases to have effect, requires that the judicial record of the conviction be kept separate and apart from other criminal records and removes any disqualification or obligation to which the applicant is, by reason of the conviction, subject under any Act of Parliament — other than section 109, 110, 161, 259, 490.‍012, 490.‍019 or 490.‍02901 of the Criminal Code, subsection 147.‍1(1) or section 227.‍01 or 227.‍06 of the National Defence Act or section 36.‍1 of the International Transfer of Offenders Act.

7.‍2 A record suspension ceases to have effect if

• (a) the person to whom it relates is subsequently convicted of

  • .‍.‍. 

  • (ii) any other offence under the Criminal Code, except subsection 255(1), or under the Controlled Drugs and Substances Act, the Firearms Act, Part III or IV of the Food and Drugs Act or the Narcotic Control Act, chapter N-1 of the Revised Statutes of Canada, 1985, that is punishable either on conviction on indictment or on summary conviction; or

131 For the purposes of this Act, a reference in the definition analyst or qualified technician in subsection 254(1) of the Criminal Code to the “Attorney General” includes the Attorney General of Canada.

secondary designated offence means

• (a) an offence within the meaning of any of paragraphs (a) to (d) of the definition secondary designated offence in section 487.‍04 of the Criminal Code that is punishable under section 130;

(2) A designated officer who is at a customs office performing the normal duties of an officer or is acting in accordance with section 99.‍1 has the powers and obligations of a peace officer under sections 254 and 256 of the Criminal Code. If, by demand, they require a person to provide samples of blood or breath under subsection 254(3) of that Act, or to submit to an evaluation or to provide samples of blood under subsection 254(3.‍1) of that Act, they may also require the person to accompany a peace officer referred to in paragraph (c) of the definition peace officer in section 2 of that Act, for that purpose.

(7) Evidence relating to the presence or concentration of alcohol or a drug in a sample of a bodily substance obtained under any provision of the Criminal Code is admissible in proceedings taken against a person under this Act in respect of a contravention of a rule or regulation respecting the use of alcohol or a drug, and section 258 of the Criminal Code applies to those proceedings with any modifications that the circumstances require.

109 The Board may, on application, cancel or vary the unexpired portion of a prohibition order made under section 259 of the Criminal Code after a period of